How can someone NOT consider authorial intent as inherently more valid an interpretation of the text than anyone else's? I mean, it's the author's text, isn't it?
ow. just. ow.
some kind of jurismprudence law about "how can someone say..." being penalised with force-feeding of every extant text in which someone says it?
ow. just. ow.
some kind of jurismprudence law about "how can someone say..." being penalised with force-feeding of every extant text in which someone says it?